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Q1. Opthalmic solutions are not evaluated for:
- A) Sterility test
- B) Active ingredient
- C) Clarity test
- D) Pyrogen test
Answer: (D) Pyrogen test
Ophthalmic solutions are evaluated for Sterility, Clarity and Active ingredients not for Pyrogen testing
Q2. Which among the given is not suitable for controlled release dosase form
- A) Diclofenace
- B) Nicotine
- C) Carbamazepine
- D) Fentanyl
Answer: (C) Carbamazepine
Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant drug and not suitable for controlled release dosage form
Q3. Kries test is related to
- A) Skin sensitivity studies
- B) Identification test of resin
- C) Rancidity index
- D) Identification test of aloin
Answer: (C) Rancidity index
Kries test refers to the spoilage of food such a way that it becomes undesirable for consumption.
Q4. Isoniazid causes hapatotoxicity due to
- A) Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
- B) Accumulation of isoniazid in hepatic cells
- C) Its metabolite acetylisoniazid
- D) Deficience of pyrifoxine caused by prolonged isoniazid theory
Answer: (A) Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
Isoniazid is an organic compound that is the first line medication for treatment of tuberculosis.
Q5. Which one of the following drug's tablet should be stored in the closely tight container to prevent loss of potency?
- A) Phenytoin
- B) Propranolol
- C) Nitroglycerine
- D) All of these
Answer: (C) Nitroglycerine
nitroglycerine is a heavy, colorless, oily, explosive liquid most commonly produced by treating glycerol with white fuming nitric acid. It should be protected form light and air exposure.
Q6. Metabolite of chlordiazepoxide is
- A) Nordiazepam
- B) Oxazepam
- C) Demoxipam
- D) All of these
Answer: (C) Demoxipam
Demoxipam is a benzodiazipine derivative. it has anticonvulsant properties.
Q7. Lemon Grass oil is obtained by steam distilation of the
- A) Fresh leaves of Eucalyptus globulus
- B) Fresh flowering tops of the menths piperata
- C) Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
- D) Pericarp of the ripe or nearly ripe fruits of citrus limonis
Answer: (C) Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
Aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus (lemon grass) are used in soaps, beauty products, insect repellents etc.
Q8. Azaspirodecandione agents are primarily used in the treatment of
- A) Obsessive-compulsive disorders
- B) Schizophrenia
- C) Anxiety
- D) Mania
Answer: (C) Anxiety
Q9. Praracetamol is a derivative of:
- A) p-amino phenol
- B) Aryl acetic acid
- C) Aryl propionic acid
- D) Anthranilic acid
Answer: (A) p-amino phenol
Q10. Efficiency of ball mill depends on
- A) Rotational speed
- B) Density of balls
- C) Volume occupied by the balls
- D) All of these
Answer: (D) All of these
Q11. Which of the following properties of a drug is affected by micronisation
- A) Flow properties
- B) Chemical stability
- C) Therapeutic effectiveness
- D) All of these
Answer: (D) All of these
Q12. The phosphate antiviral agent is
- A) Ribavirin
- B) Didanosine
- C) Ganciclovir
- D) Foscarnet
Answer: (D) Foscarnet
Q13. side effect of drugs is arise due to its intraction to cellular molucules other than the target. these effect can be minimized by their:
- A) specificity
- B) Solubility
- C) Affinity
- D) Hydrophobicity
Answer: (A) specificity
Q14. Which statement is not correct about levodopa?
- A) In perkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
- B) It is a prodrug
- C) Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism.
- D) Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential
Answer: (D) Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential
Q15. Most widely used film former in nail lacquer is
- A) Ethyle cellulose
- B) cellulose acetate
- C) cellulose nitrate
- D) cellulose acetobutyrate
Answer: (C) cellulose nitrate
Q16. Which of the following metabolite of cyclophosphamide is responsible for its anti-tumor actitivity?
- A) Phosphoramide mustard
- B) Acrolein
- C) Aldophosphamide
- D) 4-hydroxy cyclophosphamide
Answer: (A) Phosphoramide mustard
Q17. The pH of tears is about
Answer: (C) 7.4
Q18. Food poisoning is caused by :
- A) Clostridium tetani
- B) Clostridium welchi
- C) Clostridium botulinium
- D) Clostridium septicum
Answer: (C) Clostridium botulinium
Q19. Which animal is used for studying insulin preparations?
- A) Horse
- B) Pigeon
- C) Rabbit
- D) Chicken
Answer: (C) Rabbit
Q20. Geiger muller counter is used in :
- A) UV specroscopy
- B) Ionisation methods
- C) IR spectroscopy
- D) NMR spectroscopy
Answer: (B) Ionisation methods
Q21. Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by
- A) Trihexyphenidyl
- B) Levodopa
- C) Selegiline
- D) Amantadine
Answer: (A) Trihexyphenidyl
Q22. As per drug and cosmetic act 1940 phenobarbitone sodium belongs to
- A) Schedule L
- B) Shedule X
- C) Shedule R
- D) Shedule O
Answer: (B) Shedule X
Q23. Menthol is the main constituent of the volatile oil of
- A) Pinus leaf
- B) Peppermint leaf
- C) Clove buds
- D) Rose marry
Answer: (B) Peppermint leaf
Q24. The nitrogen in ephedrine is present as a
- A) Primary amine
- B) Secondary amines
- C) Tertiary amines
- D) Quarternary amines
Answer: (B) Secondary amines
Q25. Hardness of water is expressed in
- A) mL
- B) Dynes
- C) ppm
- D) Mhos
Answer: (C) ppm
Q26. Sterilisation of packed food such as milk and meat products can be done by
- A) Gas
- B) Moist heat
- C) Radiation
- D) Dry heat
Answer: (C) Radiation
Q27. Chlorophyll test is positive in
- A) Male fern
- B) Clove
- C) Rhubarb
- D) Pale catechu
Answer: (D) Pale catechu
Q28. Removal of para-nitro group of chloramphenicol may
- A) Increases the toxicity
- B) Decreases bitterness
- C) Decreses potency
- D) Increases water solubility
Answer: (C) Decreses potency
Q29. A process of sepration of molecules through the use of semi-permeable membrane is known as
- A) Osmosis
- B) Dialysis
- C) Seiving
- D) Diffusion
Answer: (B) Dialysis
Q30. Which one of the following is the initial step in the absorption of the drug from a tablet
- A) Deaggregation
- B) Diffusion
- C) Disintegration
- D) Dissolutuin
Answer: (C) Disintegration
Q31. Fenbufen is used in
- A) TB
- B) Plague
- C) Dengu
- D) Inflammation
Answer: (D) Inflammation
Q32. The female insect Coccus cacti is the source of
- A) Honey
- B) Canthrites
- C) Shellac
- D) Colchicine
Answer: (B) Canthrites
Q33. Tragacanth in water is associated with
- A) Plastic flow
- B) Pseudoplatic flow
- C) Dialatant flow
- D) None of these
Answer: (B) Pseudoplatic flow
Q34. Antioxidants are added in lipstics to
- A) Impart pleasant ordour
- B) Staining of lips
- C) Dissolving insoluble Pigments and dyes
- D) Prevent rancidity
Answer: (D) Prevent rancidity
Q35. Borntrager test is used to identification of
- A) Senna
- B) Squill
- C) Cinchona
- D) Digitalis
Answer: (A) Senna
Q36. Plasma protiens act as
- A) Reserve protiens
- B) Immunoglobulins
- C) Buffers
- D) All of these
Answer: (C) Buffers
Q37. Ketone bodies are synthesised from the fatty acid oxidisation products by which of the following organ
- A) Brain
- B) Liver
- C) Skeletal muscle
- D) Kidney
Answer: (B) Liver
Q38. An example of protien denaturation is
- A) Dissolving sugar in water
- B) Metabolism of meat
- C) Heating milk
- D) Heating egg
Answer: (D) Heating egg
Q39. An enzyme catalysed the conversion of alddose sugar to ketose sugar would be classified as
- A) Isomerases
- B) Transferases
- C) Hydrolysases
- D) Oxydoreductases
Answer: (A) Isomerases
Q40. The constituent of essential oil is
- A) Polyterpenoid
- B) Tetraterpenoid
- C) mono and sesquiterpenoid
- D) Triterpenoid
Answer: (C) mono and sesquiterpenoid
Q41. Which of the given combination has an intraction, beneficial for routine clinical use?
- A) Hydralazine and atenolol
- B) Metochlopramide and levodopa
- C) Quinidine and digoxine
- D) Furosemide and lithium carbonate
Answer: (A) Hydralazine and atenolol
hydrolazine is vasodilator and atenolol is B-blocker
Q42. Hyperuricemia is associated with the the abnormal metabolism of
- A) Purine
- B) Thiamine
- C) Riboflavin
- D) Pyrimidine
Answer: (A) Purine
Q43. Active immunity is induced by
- A) Placental transfer of antibodies
- B) Infection
- C) Injection of gamma-globulins
- D) Injection of antibodies
Answer: (B) Infection
Q44. HIV infection can be clinical controlled with
- A) Ribavirin
- B) Ganciclovir
- C) Stavudine
- D) Acyclovir
Answer: (C) Stavudine
stavudine is a nucleoside analogue reverse transcripted inhibitor
Q45. An anti-arrythmic drug that is also used to control seizures is
- A) Lidocain
- B) Disipyramide
- C) Phenytoin
- D) Amiodarone
Answer: (C) Phenytoin
Q46. Drug of choice for thyroid storm is
- A) Carbimazole
- B) Radioactive iodine
- C) Propyl thiouracil
- D) Centimizone
Answer: (C) Propyl thiouracil
Propyl thiouracil is used to control hyperthyroidism condition.
Q47. The cellular organells called 'suiside bags' are
- A) Lysosomes
- B) Nucleolus
- C) Ribosomes
- D) Golgi's bodies
Answer: (A) Lysosomes
Q48. The drug included in 'dope test' for athletes is
- A) Propranolol
- B) Prazocine
- C) Dexamphetamine
- D) Diazepam
Answer: (C) Dexamphetamine
Q49. Fifth edition of I.P. was published in the year
- A) 1985
- B) 1996
- C) 2007
- D) 2015
Answer: (C) 2007
Q50. List of minimum equipements required for efficient running of pharmacy is given in shedule
Answer: (B) N
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